G'day Just wondering, from a tax point of view, who is entitled to claim on the interest paid in the following situation: 1. Loan originally taken out by both husband & wife for IP. 2. Title of IP is in husbands name only. (So until now he has claimed). 3. IP is refinanced with another lender to 80% LVR interest only investment loan (loan still in both names & title still in husbands name only). 4. After paying out the original lender, the balance is used to buy * additional * units in a managed fund in the * wife's * name. I am unsure whether: 1. the husband would continue to claim on the interest paid 2. it would now be claimed against the wife's income 3. or would it need to be apportioned? Your "opinion" is appreciated, thanks.