John buys 150 units of CBA at $35.00 on 10/06/08 costing $5,250.00. John buys 150 units of CBA at $32.00 on 17/08/08 costing $4,800.00. John buys 400 units of CBA at $30.00 on 22/12/08 costing $12,000.00. John sells 400 units of CBA at $25.00 on 19/07/09 returning $10,000.00. From what I've been told, you go off your earliest buys to work out your capital losses and work your way up, so in this scenario it would be: (150*35.00)+(150*32.00)+(100*30.00)=13,050.00 So 13,050.00-10,000.00 would equal Johns capital losses. Therefore in the scenario above $3,050.00 would be Johns deductible capital losses, correct? Furthermore, if John had paid $20 in brokerage fees for each of those Buy/Sell transactions, wouldn't they be added to the capital losses total? Which in this case would be: 100% of the $20 brokerage fee on the buy order on 10/06/08 , because all those units are included in the capital loss. 100% of the $20 brokerage fee on the buy order on 17/08/08 , because all those units are included in the capital loss. 25% of the $20 brokerage fee ($5) on the buy order on 22/12/08 , because only 25% of the units in that buy are going towards the capital loss. 100% of the $20 brokerage fee on the sell order on 19/07/09. Which would bring the total combined brokerage fee deduction costs to $65.00, thus bringing the total deductable capital loss to $3,115.00. Note: This isn't homework or anything, I've just used a hypothetical scenario above so as to not include all my own financial information. I'd just like to make sure I'm calculating things correctly.