I plan to buy my first investment property in the next couple of months and I have a family trust set up to do. I was recently told that when I decide to buy my PPOR I should get the loan in my name and then loan the money back to the trust and I can claim the interest payments on the loan in my name. Is this entirely true? How does it work? How does this work if you are paying market rent for the property and whether it was negative or positively geared? I don't have a problem with CGT exemptions as I would want to live in this place for a long time and have no plans on selling but instead keeping it as an "investment property"?