Hi everyone I am hoping someone out there can clarify this for me. I have been investing in property (only) over the last 7 years. I currently use a LOC for all IP expenses and I capitalise the interest. How can I use managed funds to improve cashflow if I am borrowing 100% using loc doc/no docs at 7.5%, am I missing something as after reading many posts I am still struggling with this. Thanks for your help.