Managed Funds Navra distribution

Discussion in 'Shares & Funds' started by Andrew Allen, 6th Mar, 2008.

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  1. ffc1883_1996

    ffc1883_1996 Member

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    I'm very new to managed fund investing and have only recently begun investing in NI. Correct me if I'm wrong but I don't think the losses that Steve is referring to above were listed in the prospectus as a risk?
     
  2. Simon Hampel

    Simon Hampel Founder Staff Member

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    I think some people are forgetting that the distribution unit holders will receive is already reflected in the unit price - there's no free lunch from distributions (the unit price first had to go up - or not go down by as much as the case may be :rolleyes: ... before it can be distributed) ... and when the distribution is paid out, the unit price will drop correspondingly.

    If the fund realises trading losses - it has no real impact on unit price (the value had already dropped to cause the trading loss in the first place), and so the effect of the lower profit being distributed results in a smaller drop in unit price at distribution time.

    The net result would means that your capital position and after-tax return is improved slightly as a result! You're not really worse off overall than before - in fact, arguably better off!

    But, naturally if you are investing for the long term and counting on the income distributions without regard to the capital value of the fund - then I guess you don't really care about unit price and just want the maximum distribution possible :p
     
  3. TryHard

    TryHard Well-Known Member

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    I think the theoretical problem some people would have is NI is widely known as an income fund, and some are heavily reliant on the quarterly distribution. Selling units to recover capital could be messy with capital loss etc I guess, depending on an investor's individual position ?

    For my part, I'm happy, it all looks like good news to me compared to watching some direct investors I work with (razor blades anyone? :p) ... but can see why some people would be confused how a change in strategy by a number of investors changes the capital/income split available to all unitholders ... if I read that right.

    Still, could be a lot worse :cool:

    Cheers
    Carl
     
  4. MJK__

    MJK__ Well-Known Member

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    Yes, seems fair. I'll accept that. Thanks Sim also

    MJK
     
  5. Jen__

    Jen__ Member

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    I don't understand why this fund isn't performing really well with the volatility as this was where it was meant to shine. I was under the impression that it didn't matter whether the shares went up or down but it has mattered a lot. I'm not great with understanding the whole thing, so could someone explain that part to me please.
     
  6. Simon Hampel

    Simon Hampel Founder Staff Member

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    It is performing well at the moment ... around 5% better than the market ... however, what this really means right now is that it is losing less money than the market is. Nobody ever said the fund would not go down in value in a falling market - but it should still be able to produce some income (which it looks like doing).

    At the end of the day - the fund predominantly buys and holds large parcels of shares - and trades a relatively small portion of them (as it had been selling towards the peak of the market, the fund was at something like 40% cash - so still held 60% of its money was invested in shares long term).

    These share holdings are subject to the fluctuations in the underlying value of the shares just like any other share investment. The main difference with Navra is those percentage of shares that they will buy/sell as the price moves up and down - which generates income as they make profitable trades - and also smooths out the overall return.

    The fund is doing pretty much what it is supposed to do now - although the really interesting part will be to see how it performs as the market recovers.

    It doesn't really matter for the fund's ability to generate distributable income (although falling market is not ideal due to realised trading losses - hence the relatively small distribution this quarter) ... but changes in share values still impact the overall value of the fund (as reflected in the unit price).
     
  7. redrover

    redrover Well-Known Member

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    The thing that has to be remembered also is that a lot of people also invested by borrowing against their property so have to fund holding costs at about 8.5 - 9.25% (and rising! if new or not fixed) against a unit price going south, so for a lot of people the income this year will be lucky to be 1% net. Also one thing people have not mentioned is the fact that your asset base has obviously decreased whilst not a loss unless you sell, it will impact on your values if seeking finance as a lender will look at the current value and not what you purchased the units for which may impact on your debt servicing capability!

    Also with the volatility over the last month the banks and larger caps have had daily trading ranges of +5% and -5%. That should have produced very profitable trading and I would have thought a return of more than 2% would have been easily achieved!!:(
     
  8. moonbeamzz

    moonbeamzz Member

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    Calrification

    Ok, I appreciate how with underlying share prices going down then unit values go down, I also appreciate that it is more difficult to make trading profits in a falling as opposed to a rising market if the facility isn't available to short sell the market. However what I don't understand is how clients switching to warrants cause the fund to sell at a loss and therefore reduce what were apparently 'realised and locked in profits' of about 3%.

    In sum my question is and I'm hoping someone can help me out here, what has an individual's choice of strategy i.e. switching from margin loans to instalment warrants got to do with the trading strategy of the fund? Therefore by extension, how can this change of strategy impact on the trading profitability of the fund.

    Cheers :confused:
     
  9. DaveA__

    DaveA__ Well-Known Member

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    Im guessing it may do with the lack of cash... (or the amount they want to distribute)....

    By people redeeming the units, Navra are having to pay the full amount of cash of the value of the unit. Then if there was say 1m to distribute and they paid out 333k to people for redemtion of units. There is now only 666k to distribute and is divided by the amount of units issued... However only guessing but seems the only logical idea..
     
  10. moonbeamzz

    moonbeamzz Member

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    Thanks for the input Dave, guess that is one possibility. However my underlying question remains and from what I can gather clients changing from margin loans to warrants has led to a chnage in approach and this I don't understand. Having said that I don't fully understand how the warrants work particularly the refinancing from margin loans.

    Cheers
     
  11. Simon Hampel

    Simon Hampel Founder Staff Member

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    No change in approach that I can see. The fund has always had the obligation to pay out cash for anyone who wants to withdraw their units - for whatever reason (people redeem units all the time!). This generally means selling shares to meet the requirements.

    At the moment with the markets dropping and the fund being more heavily invested (probably close to 100% invested) ... they are more likely to need to shares to meet the obligations.

    But even if the fund had a lot of cash, they may choose to sell some shares as well rather than fund it completely out of cash holdings (cash is a strategic asset to the fund, not just a pool of lazy money).

    So no matter why someone chooses to redeem units - say, to fund the deposit on a house or something like that, they have to sell shares to meet that obligation. It's just normal operating procedure for the fund.
     
  12. Smartypants

    Smartypants Well-Known Member

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    Like others, I'm also a bit confused as to how the (expected) quarterly distribution has gone from 3% to 2%.

    I have chosen to stay with my margin loan, so from Steves' comment above ("Any investor can at anytime redeem the 1% of capital, should they for example wish to have a 3% cashflow for this quarter"), does that mean I will receive a 3% distribution, or does it mean that I would have to sell off some of my holdings to make up the 1% difference (should I want to achieve 3%)?
     
  13. Simon Hampel

    Simon Hampel Founder Staff Member

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    I think that is what Steve was getting at. The 1% is still there - it hasn't magically disappeared - it is just that it is held in capital now, rather than as realised income that would have been distributed.

    As I tried to explain - distributions don't come out of thin air - you have to actually earn the money first, and this is already reflected in the unit price before distribution.

    This is the same reason that the timing of your purchases and sales of units is fairly important - if you buy at the end of the quarter, you'll receive some of your capital back as taxable income at the beginning of the next quarter. If you sell at the end of the quarter, you'll receive a slightly higher capital gain (or less of a capital loss as the case may be!!) and less income.
     
  14. TwoDogs

    TwoDogs Well-Known Member

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    I thought moving to warrants didn't have to involve selling?

    Of course selling and buying back may be a handy wash sale, but at the cocktail party it was stated that margined units or direct units just required some "paperwork" to move to warrants? Or is this not the case ?
     
  15. MJK__

    MJK__ Well-Known Member

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    Wondering about that also. Could it be that people are correcting to 55% lvr?

    MJK
     
  16. Redwing

    Redwing Well-Known Member

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    Nope, gotta sell and buy back in (hopefully price doesn't go against you in the timeframe)
     
  17. TwoDogs

    TwoDogs Well-Known Member

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    This is a quote from an email enquiry to NFS few weeks back:

    Moving to Warrants is a simple refinance process from your Margin Lender to ABN AMRO. The gearing ratio with warrants is 55%. If you current Margin Loan LVR is below 55%m, then it is a simple refinance.

    If the LVR is above 55%, then there are 3 options:

    1) purchase additional units
    2) pay down some of the margin loan
    3) rebalance by redeeming enough units to get the margin loan to 55% for refinance


    Nothing about sell and buy (except to adj to 55%LVR), just "simple refinance", the same as mentioned at the cocktail party. Not that I mind really, I could do with a legit wash sale. Hmmm, and after distribution it will be an even better time !

    But a 10%pa return (even though this the "expected" return) just doesn't cover the cost of money, warrants or no warrants, for the risk. I'd take 8% in a bank with no risk or loan if that's all that is on offer. And at a time of such great volatility.
     
  18. Simon Hampel

    Simon Hampel Founder Staff Member

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    The fund won't show it's real power until the market starts to recover - then all the shares it bought cheap will show excellent profits on the way up.

    The fund doesn't make it's big money just from volatility in a sideways market - the market actually has to go up to make the big returns.
     
  19. lorrimer

    lorrimer Well-Known Member

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    I thought the warrants were only available to investors in the retail fund? If so, why should the wholesale fund also be affected by this?
     
  20. JustB

    JustB Well-Known Member

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    Because investors in the wholesale fund that moved to warrants sold out and bought into the retail fund. That meant the wholesale fund will have incurred realised losses in the process.